Haematology Practice Exam

1. Which red blood cell indices are most useful in distinguishing microcytic anaemias?
A) MCV
B) MCH
C) MCHC
D) RDW

2. Heinz bodies are composed of which of the following?
A) DNA
B) Iron
C) Denatured haemoglobin
D) RNA

3. What is the most probable cause of a decreased ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate)?
A) Inflammation
B) High fibrinogen
C) Sickle cell anaemia
D) Pregnancy

4. Which inclusion is typically seen in lead poisoning?
A) Howell-Jolly bodies
B) Heinz bodies
C) Pappenheimer bodies
D) Basophilic stippling

5. What is the most appropriate stain for detecting iron in bone marrow?
A) Wright-Giemsa
B) Sudan black B
C) Prussian blue
D) PAS

6. Which of the following cells is the earliest recognizable erythroid precursor?
A) Reticulocyte
B) Pronormoblast
C) Basophilic normoblast
D) Orthochromatic normoblast

7. The LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase) score is typically elevated in:
A) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia (CML)
B) Leukemoid reaction
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
D) Aplastic anemia

8. A patient with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) would likely have which of the following findings?
A) Increased blasts
B) Hypersegmented neutrophils
C) Smudge cells
D) Döhle bodies

9. The most common cause of hereditary spherocytosis is a defect in which protein?
A) Haemoglobin
B) Spectrin
C) Fibrinogen
D) Actin

10. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to confirm a suspected diagnosis of PNH (Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria)?
A) Coombs test
B) Flow cytometry for CD55/CD59
C) Osmotic fragility test
D) Haemoglobin electrophoresis

11. Which of the following findings is most consistent with megaloblastic anemia?
A) Target cells
B) Microcytic hypochromic cells
C) Oval macrocytes and hypersegmented neutrophils
D) Spherocytes

12. In iron deficiency anaemia, the TIBC is typically:
A) Decreased
B) Increased
C) Normal
D) Variable

13. Which of the following is a characteristic finding in chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?
A) Auer rods
B) Philadelphia chromosome
C) Increased LAP score
D) Smudge cells

14. Which RBC abnormality is associated with G6PD deficiency following oxidative stress?
A) Target cells
B) Spherocytes
C) Bite cells
D) Elliptocytes

15. What is the key feature of polycythemia vera?
A) Decreased RBC mass
B) JAK2 mutation
C) Elevated erythropoietin
D) Bone marrow failure

16. The presence of Auer rods in blasts is indicative of:
A) ALL
B) AML
C) CLL
D) CML

17. Which test is used to monitor heparin therapy?
A) PT
B) INR
C) aPTT
D) Bleeding time

18. The Philadelphia chromosome results from a translocation between chromosomes:
A) 9 and 22
B) 8 and 14
C) 15 and 17
D) 11 and 22

19. What is the expected bone marrow finding in aplastic anemia?
A) Hypercellularity
B) Increased megakaryocytes
C) Hypocellularity
D) Increased blasts

20. Rouleaux formation is most commonly seen in:
A) Hereditary spherocytosis
B) Iron deficiency anemia
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Sickle cell disease

21. Which stain is used to differentiate myeloblasts from lymphoblasts?
A) PAS
B) Prussian blue
C) Myeloperoxidase (MPO)
D) Wright-Giemsa

22. The M:E ratio in normal bone marrow is typically around:
A) 1:1
B) 2:1 to 4:1
C) 5:1
D) 10:1

23. In which conditions would schistocytes most likely be found?
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Thalassemia
C) DIC
D) Aplastic anemia

24. In hereditary elliptocytosis, the predominant RBC shape is:
A) Sickle-shaped
B) Round
C) Elliptical
D) Tear-drop

25. The reticulocyte count is typically increased in which of the following?
A) Aplastic anaemia
B) Hemolytic anaemia
C) Iron deficiency anaemia
D) Thalassemia trait